I found this quote by Schopenhauer in the Second volume of his book in chapter 39 to be very interesting "With regard to this superiority of music, and in so far as it stands to the text and the action in the relation of universal to particular, of rule to example, it might perhaps appear more suitable for the text to be written for the music than for the music to be composed for the text" [448-449]
Schopenhauer seems to maintain his same outlook on music as the same as what he has written in most of his previous writings. However I feel as if Schopenhauer is biased when he writes, because Schopenhauer personally feels that if it is licit to him directly it must make it licit to everyone else too. I feel as though what Schopenhauer says is true that music can make you feel a certain way so in order to express how you feel to connect that message across you may write lyrics to go with the music already produced. However if there is a certain message that you want to get across you may write out how you are feeling then use instruments to assist your lyrics. By doing this I feel like it doesn't necessarily make it wrong or make the music Noxious.
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